One claim that I've been aware of for quite some time is that men are significantly more likely to be the victims of violent crime in the US:
The trend lines show, first, that regardless of year, males were more likely to be victimized than females, by a factor of about 1.8 in 1973, about 1.4 in 1994, and about 1.5 in 2005.
While reading Fighting violence against women: Why Dec. 6 still matters, one assertion that the article made was that "Women are the victims of violent crime more often than men." In support of that statement was a link to this Statistics Canada report which indeed states that:
The rate of police-reported violent crime against women was about 5% higher than the rate for men in 2011.
I found myself pondering what might explain this. One factor might be differences in what counts as "violent crime" - Statistics Canada seems to count both "uttering threats" and "stalking" as violent crime whereas in the US study linked "violent" seems to only apply to a more-restricted subset of crimes in the US. I wonder to what extent domestic violence - which factors heavily into the Statistics Canada figures - plays a part. There's plenty of evidence suggesting that domestic violence rates are similar among men and women - but it seems more difficult for men to report such abuse.
UPDATE: I seem to have found the answer in another Canadian government doc:
In 2008, overall rates of police-reported violent victimization were comparable between men and women, but the nature of their victimization differed.
In that year, men were more likely than women to be victims of the most serious forms of physical assault (levels 2 and 3) and have a weapon used against them.
Basically the more violent the crime the more likely the victim is to be male (with that page breaking down figures for different types of crimes) - excepting, of course, sex crimes.
